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Prescription Review practice question: a 74-year-old with recurrent hypoglycaemia in general practice

Question A: Select the ONE prescription most likely to be causing his hypoglycaemic episodes. (mark it with a tick in column A) Question B: Select the ONE prescription most likely to be masking the warning symptoms of the episodes. A real item from the PassthePSA bank, in the exam's own layout, with the complete answer and explanation below.

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4marks
2 min 24 sat exam pace
Mediumdifficulty
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The question

Work it with the BNF open before you show the answer. At exam pace this item has 2 min 24 s.

ID : REV-84Prescription Review4 marksmedium
Case presentation

A 74-year-old man is reviewed urgently in general practice after his wife found him pale, sweating and confused in the garden mid-morning; paramedics recorded a capillary glucose of 2.6 mmol/L and he recovered fully with oral glucose. A near-identical episode happened 3 weeks ago. On neither occasion did he notice palpitations, tremor or hunger beforehand. He has had type 2 diabetes for 12 years. Two months ago his glimepiride was increased after a raised HbA1c, and 6 weeks ago propranolol was restarted for the return of his long-standing migraine. He eats breakfast at seven and takes his morning tablets with it. His current prescriptions are shown.

PMH: Type 2 diabetes mellitus; hypertension; migraine; hypercholesterolaemia; gastro-oesophageal reflux disease; osteoarthritis of the hips.

DH: As charted; no over-the-counter or herbal preparations; no known drug allergies.

SH: Retired postman; lives with his wife; drinks 4 units of alcohol a week; ex-smoker.

On examination: Temperature 36.7°C, HR 58/min regular, BP 134/78 mmHg, RR 14/min, O2 sat 97% breathing air. Weight 71 kg. Alert and fully orientated at review. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations normal. No focal neurology.

Investigations: Capillary glucose during this morning's episode 2.6 mmol/L (4.0–7.8) HbA1c 44 mmol/mol (target 53), and 58 mmol/mol 3 months ago Na 140 mmol/L (133–146) K 4.4 mmol/L (3.5–5.3) Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.5–7.8) Cr 88 µmol/L (60–120) eGFR 79 mL/min/1.73 m² (>60) ALT 22 U/L (<40)

QuestionQuestion A: Select the ONE prescription most likely to be causing his hypoglycaemic episodes. (mark it with a tick in column A) Question B: Select the ONE prescription most likely to be masking the warning symptoms of the episodes.
(mark it with a tick in column B)
CURRENT PRESCRIPTIONSAB
  • amlodipine
  • atorvastatin
  • glimepiride
  • lansoprazole
  • metformin
  • paracetamol
  • propranolol
Answer and marking
Question A

Correct answer

glimepiride

Marks

2

Explanation

2 marks for ticking the glimepiride and nothing else. Only one drug on this chart makes insulin: glimepiride, a sulfonylurea that stimulates secretion regardless of the prevailing glucose, which is why its SmPC (Brown & Burk, revised December 2020) builds its central warnings around hypoglycaemia. The chart tells the story in numbers: the dose was doubled to 4 mg two months ago, the HbA1c has fallen from 58 to 44 mmol/mol — well through the target of 53 — and two mid-morning collapses at a capillary glucose of 2.6 mmol/L have followed the morning dose. That is over-treatment in a 74-year-old, in whom the honest correction is a dose reduction, not just a snack. Do not tick the metformin: its own SmPC closes it in one sentence — 'It does not stimulate insulin secretion and therefore does not cause hypoglycaemia.' The remaining rows have no glycaemic pharmacology at all, and the printed eGFR of 79 removes renal accumulation as a competing mechanism. The rule that transfers: when a diabetic chart produces a low glucose, find the secretagogue (or the insulin) first, and ask what changed and when.

Question B

Correct answer

propranolol

Marks

2

Explanation

2 marks for ticking the propranolol and nothing else. The clue is what is missing: on neither occasion did he feel palpitations, tremor or hunger before the collapse. Those early warnings are adrenergic — driven by the catecholamine surge of counter-regulation — and a non-selective beta-blocker sits directly on top of them. Propranolol's SmPC (Amarox, revised April 2026) says so twice: it 'may block/modify the signs and symptoms of the hypoglycaemia (especially tachycardia)' and it 'modifies the tachycardia of hypoglycaemia', with the explicit instruction that 'Caution must be exercised in the concurrent use of propranolol and hypoglycaemic therapy in diabetic patients.' The glimepiride SmPC states the same interaction from the other side: under beta-blockers 'the signs of adrenergic counter regulation to hypoglycaemia may be reduced or absent.' Restarted 6 weeks ago for migraine, propranolol is the only sympatholytic row on the chart — nothing else has adrenergic pharmacology to lose. The practical lesson: in a patient on a sulfonylurea or insulin who needs a beta-blocker, a cardioselective agent is the safer habit, and any beta-blocker demands a warning that hypoglycaemia may now announce itself only as sweating or confusion.

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How to approach a prescription review item

The repeatable method from the Prescription Review section guide.

  1. Read the problem firstBefore the chart: what has gone wrong, and when did it start?
  2. Find what changedA drug started or increased just before the problem is the prime suspect. Dates on the chart matter.
  3. Ask the timing questionDoes the interval fit? A rash on day 8 of a penicillin fits; a rash two years into amlodipine does not.
  4. Check the pairIf two drugs could act together, open one monograph's interactions and look for the other.
  5. Confirm, then tickOne lookup to confirm the mechanism. Then tick the prescription, not the drug that treats the problem.

Before you submit

  • Have I found the drug that fits the timing, not just one that could cause the problem?
  • Did I tick the cause, not the treatment?
  • Does the question want one prescription or two?
  • If it is an interaction, have I named both halves?
  • Have I checked organ function against the dose?

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